2013년 10월 31일 목요일

ISQI CTAL-TM_001 인증 덤프

ITExamDump의ISQI인증CTAL-TM_001자료는 제일 적중률 높고 전면적인 덤프임으로 여러분은 100%한번에 응시로 패스하실 수 있습니다. 그리고 우리는 덤프를 구매 시 일년무료 업뎃을 제공합니다. 여러분은 먼저 우리 ITExamDump사이트에서 제공되는ISQI인증CTAL-TM_001시험덤프의 일부분인 데모 즉 문제와 답을 다운받으셔서 체험해보실 수 잇습니다.

IT업종 종사자분들은 모두 승진이나 연봉인상을 위해 자격증을 취득하려고 최선을 다하고 계실것입니다. 하지만 쉴틈없는 야근에 시달려서 공부할 시간이 없어 스트레스가 많이 쌓였을것입니다. ITExamDump의ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001덤프로ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001시험공부를 해보세요. 시험문제커버율이 높아 덤프에 있는 문제만 조금의 시간의 들여 공부하신다면 누구나 쉽게 시험패스가능합니다.

ISQI CTAL-TM_001인증덤프가 ITExamDump전문가들의 끈임 없는 노력 하에 최고의 버전으로 출시되었습니다. 여러분의 꿈을 이루어드리려고 말이죠. IT업계에서 자기만의 자리를 잡고 싶다면ISQI CTAL-TM_001인증시험이 아주 좋은 자격증입니다. 만약ISQI CTAL-TM_001인증시험 자격증이 있다면 일에서도 많은 변화가 있을 것입니다, 연봉상승은 물론, 자기자신만의 공간도 넓어집니다.

목표를 이루는 방법은 여러가지가 있는데 어느 방법을 선택하면 가장 빨리 목표를 이룰수 있을가요? ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001시험을 패스하는 길에는ITExamDump의ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001덤프를 공부하는 것이 가장 좋은 방법이라는것을 굳게 약속드립니다. ITExamDump의ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001덤프는 시험문제에 초점을 두어 제작된 공부자료이기에ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001패스를 가장 빠른 시일내에 한방에 할수 있도록 도와드립니다.

시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TM_001
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)
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Q&A: 65 문항
업데이트: 2013-10-30

IT인증시험은 국제적으로 인정받는 자격증을 취득하는 과정이라 난이도가 아주 높습니다. ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001시험은 IT인증자격증을 취득하는 시험과목입니다.어떻게 하면 난이도가 높아 도전할 자신이 없는 자격증을 한방에 취득할수 있을가요? 그 답은ITExamDump에서 찾을볼수 있습니다. ITExamDump에서는 모든 IT인증시험에 대비한 고품질 시험공부가이드를 제공해드립니다. ITExamDump에서 연구제작한 ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001덤프로ISQI인증 CTAL-TM_001시험을 준비해보세요. 시험패스가 한결 편해집니다.

우리는 여러분이 시험패스는 물론 또 일년무료 업데이트서비스를 제공합니다.만약 시험에서 실패했다면 우리는 덤프비용전액 환불을 약속 드립니다.하지만 이런 일은 없을 것입니다.우리는 우리덤프로 100%시험패스에 자신이 있습니다. 여러분은 먼저 우리 ITExamDump사이트에서 제공되는ISQI인증CTAL-TM_001시험덤프의 일부분인 데모 즉 문제와 답을 다운받으셔서 체험해보실 수 잇습니다.

CTAL-TM_001 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/CTAL-TM_001.html

NO.1 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned
scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001

NO.2 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical
monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to
see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001자격증

NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test
specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to
be achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area,
testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always
applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001자료   CTAL-TM_001덤프

NO.5 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to
provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an
influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.6 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support.
Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI pdf   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001최신덤프

NO.7 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for
the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI pdf   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001시험문제

NO.9 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on
reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001   CTAL-TM_001 pdf

NO.10 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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CTFL_UK 덤프 ISQI 자격증 덤프

ITExamDump는ISQI CTFL_UK인증시험을 아주 쉽게 패스할 수 있도록 도와드리는 사이트입니다. ITExamDump의 엘리트한 전문가가 끈임 없는 노력으로 최고의ISQI CTFL_UK자료를 만들었습니다. 이 자료로 여러분은 100%ISQI의CTFL_UK인증시험을 패스할 수 있으며, ITExamDump을 선택함으로 성공을 선택한 것입니다. ITExamDump가 제공하는 시험가이드로 효과적인 학습으로 많은 분들이 모두 인증시험을 패스하였습니다. 이건 모두 ITExamDump 인증시험덤프로 공부하였기 때문입니다. 그 중ISQI CTFL_UK인증시험을 패스한 분들도 모두 ITExamDump인증시험덤프를 사용하였기 때문입니다.

ITExamDump에서는ISQI 인증CTFL_UK시험대비덤프를 발췌하여 제공해드립니다. ISQI 인증CTFL_UK시험대비덤프에는 시험문제의 모든 예상문제와 시험유형이 포함되어있어 시험준비자료로서 가장 좋은 선택입니다. ITExamDump에서 제공해드리는 전면적인ISQI 인증CTFL_UK시험대비덤프로ISQI 인증CTFL_UK시험준비공부를 해보세요. 통과율이 100%입니다.

시험 번호/코드: CTFL_UK
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
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ITExamDump에서 출시한 ISQI인증 CTFL_UK덤프는 실제시험문제 커버율이 높아 시험패스율이 가장 높습니다. ISQI인증 CTFL_UK시험을 통과하여 자격증을 취득하면 여러방면에서 도움이 됩니다. ITExamDump에서 출시한 ISQI인증 CTFL_UK덤프를 구매하여ISQI인증 CTFL_UK시험을 완벽하게 준비하지 않으실래요? ITExamDump의 실력을 증명해드릴게요.

취직을 원하시나요? 승진을 원하시나요? 연봉인상을 원하시나요? 무엇을 원하시든 국제적으로 인정받은 IT인증자격증을 취득하는것이 길입니다. ISQI인증 CTFL_UK시험은 널리 인정받는 인기자격증의 시험과목입니다. ISQI인증 CTFL_UK시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득하면 소원이 이루어집니다. ITExamDump의ISQI인증 CTFL_UK덤프는 시험패스율이 높아ISQI인증 CTFL_UK시험준비에 딱 좋은 공부자료입니다. ITExamDump에서 덤프를 마련하여 자격증취득에 도전하여 인생을 바꿔보세요.

CTFL_UK 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/CTFL_UK.html

NO.1 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI자료   CTFL_UK dumps   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK자료

NO.2 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL_UK덤프   CTFL_UK시험문제   CTFL_UK

NO.3 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK

NO.4 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK

NO.5 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL_UK인증   CTFL_UK최신덤프   CTFL_UK

NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTFL_UK인증   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK pdf

NO.7 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   CTFL_UK덤프   CTFL_UK

NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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CQA 덤프 ASQ 자격증

ASQ인증CQA시험은 국제적으로 승인해주는 IT인증시험의 한과목입니다. 근 몇년간 IT인사들에게 최고의 인기를 누리고 있는 과목으로서 그 난이도 또한 높습니다. 자격증을 취득하여 직장에서 혹은 IT업계에서 자시만의 위치를 찾으련다면 자격증 취득이 필수입니다. ASQ인증CQA시험을 패스하고 싶은 분들은ITExamDump제품으로 가보세요.

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시험 번호/코드: CQA
시험 이름: ASQ (Quality Auditor Exam)
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Q&A: 103 문항
업데이트: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 A root cause of a nonconformance is defined as a problem that
A. is discovered by conducting designed experiments
B. is established through the use of fishbone diagrams
C. must be reviewed by the material review board
D. must be corrected in order to prevent a recurrence
Answer: D

ASQ최신덤프   CQA자격증   CQA인증

NO.2 Which of the following conclusions can be made by an auditor who observes that statistical
process control (SPC) charts posted near operator workstations are done correctly and are
regularly completed throughout the plant?
A. Commitment of management to quality is strong
B. Processes are being improved continually
C. Shop floor staff have been fully trained
D. SPC charts are available
Answer: D

ASQ dump   CQA최신덤프   CQA dump   CQA자료

NO.3 An audit trail is necessary in order to
A. schedule and budget for audit assignments
B. show how and when items were reviewed
C. provide management with justification for an audit
D. provide the audit manager with audit results
Answer: B

ASQ   CQA   CQA   CQA자격증

NO.4 When lower-tier documents are compared to higher-tier documents before the fieldwork
starts, the
comparison is called a
A. desk audit
B. process audit
C. conformance audit
D. management audit
Answer: A

ASQ시험문제   CQA   CQA자료   CQA인증

NO.5 Which of the following audit strategies is a common technique to assess compliance to a
specific
requirement at all locations where that requirement is applicable?
A. Discovery method
B. Element method
C. Department method
D. Process method
Answer: B

ASQ자료   CQA   CQA dumps   CQA dump

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시험 번호/코드: MSC-131
시험 이름: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
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NO.1 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions기출문제   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.2 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.3 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions자료   MSC-131   MSC-131최신덤프   MSC-131

NO.4 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions자격증   MSC-131최신덤프   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.5 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions자격증   MSC-131   MSC-131자격증   MSC-131자격증

NO.6 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131최신덤프   MSC-131최신덤프   MSC-131기출문제

NO.7 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.8 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions최신덤프   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.9 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions인증   MSC-131최신덤프   MSC-131 pdf   MSC-131

NO.10 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131 pdf   MSC-131   MSC-131덤프   MSC-131덤프

NO.11 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131인증   MSC-131인증   MSC-131

NO.12 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions자료   MSC-131인증   MSC-131 dump

NO.13 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-131자료   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131기출문제   MSC-131

NO.14 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions최신덤프   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131

NO.15 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions자료   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131   MSC-131최신덤프

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시험 번호/코드: MSC-431
시험 이름: Motorola Solutions (Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
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NO.1 What is the purpose of performing a Stakeholder Analysis?
A. Analyze the strength of commitment needed for project stakeholders vs. where they are currently
B. Analyze the risk for the project
C. Analyze the completeness of charter for the project
D. Analyze the methodology chosen for the project
Answer: A

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7. Which of the following terms refers to a trial implementation of the proposed design or
process change on a reduced scale?
A. Production Run
B. Pilot
C. Design of Experiments
D. Comparative Method
Answer: B

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8. What is the correct order of steps in an experiment (DOE)?
-Design the experiment & plan data collection -Run the experiment and collect data -State the
problem or objective -Analyze the results -Interpret the results"
A. 1,3,4,2,5
B. 3, 1, 2,4,5
C. 3,1,4,2,5
D. 3, 1, 2, 5,4
Answer: B

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NO.2 In a statistical analysis, the beta risk () is:
A. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true
B. Always equal to 0.10
C. Driven by the cost of sampling
D. The probability of failing to reject the null hypothesis when it is false
Answer: D

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NO.3 For a multiple regression model, the R2 is the parameter that:
A. Represents the fraction of total variation explained by the model
B. Explains the strength of only one of the inputs in the model
C. Explains if the input factor causes the output response
D. Quantifies the slope of the line in the model
Answer: A

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NO.4 Electrical devices are evaluated as conforming or not conforming to specifications. The
appropriate data type is:
A. Nominal discrete data
B. Continuous data
C. Ordinal data
D. Variable data
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the most powerful factor in achieving success in Six Sigma in an organization?
A. Strategic Integration
B. Business Process Framework
C. A consistent, disciplined team meeting schedule
D. Committed Leadership
Answer: D

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NO.6 After developing a Process map (listing steps and functions), the first step in developing an
FMEA is:
A. Brainstorming possible failure modes with team members
B. Assigning scores for SEVERITY , OCCURRENCE and DETECTION
C. Calculating RPN-Risk Priority Number
D. Prioritizing failure modes for action or resolution
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes reliability levels associated with databases required to persist
state data.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the issuance and delivery of positive and negative
acknowledgement messages.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes SOAP headers related to atomic transactions with rollback
features.
D. WS-ReliableMessaging standardizes the expression of service composition logic, but only for
SOAP-based Web services.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs within the underlying service logic.
B. Service activities represent design-time message exchanges that are established between
SOAP-based Web services and defined as part of the operation definition within the WSDL definition.
C. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between services.
D. Service activities represent runtime activity that occurs between complex and simple XML Schema
types.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for SOAP-based Web services. Instead, they
use a uniform contract.
B. Individual service contracts do not need to be published for REST services. Instead, they use a
common uniform contract.
C. Components provide published contracts, but when building services as components, components
must use a uniform contract instead.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important
technology specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When designing REST services within a given domain, you establish __________________ that are
represented by unique identifiers, usually in the format of __________________.
A. resources, HTTPs/HTTPSs
B. mashups, HTTPs/HTTPSs
C. resources, URLs/URIs
D. mashups, URLs/URIs
Answer: C

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NO.6 If Service B is invoked by Service A and then Service B invokes Service C and all of this happens as
part of the same service activity, then Service B would be considered:
A. an intermediary
B. a service agent
C. an ultimate receiver
D. an initial sender
Answer: A

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NO.7 Identify what is wrong with the following statement: "I have a single Calculator component that provides
basic math functions. I'm exposing this component as a component-based service for internal service
consumers that are also component-based. I'm exposing this component as a SOAP-based Web service
for internal and external service consumers that support SOAP messaging. I'm also exposing this
component as a REST service for external service consumers that prefer to access its functions via HTTP
methods. I'm also exposing this component as a service agent for service consumers that support explicit
invocation via a service contract."
A. A single component cannot be exposed as a component-based service, a SOAP-based Web service
and a REST service at the same time.
B. SOAP-based Web service consumer programs cannot be both internally and externally located.
C. The uniform contract required by REST services does not support the use of HTTP methods.
D. Service agents are event-driven and are therefore not explicitly invoked via a service contract.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A __________________ establishes a common access point generally based on HTTP methods used
by __________________.
A. WSDL definition, SOAP-based Web service
B. uniform contract, REST services
C. XML schemas, components
D. None of the above
Answer: B

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NO.9 A SOAP message is an XML document that is comprised of a set of pre-defined parts. Which of the
following are parts that can be found in a SOAP message?
A. Envelope
B. Body
C. Header
D. Footer
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 SOAP-based Web services can be designed for use within traditional RPC-style distributed solutions
or for use in service-oriented solutions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.11 WS-Addressing is most commonly associated with __________________ functionality.
A. process management
B. policy enforcement
C. message routing
D. choreography
Answer: C

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NO.12 Data model transformation is a core service function that can be performed by proven technologies
that have been around for years. Therefore, it is recommended that you look for opportunities to apply this
technology wherever possible, especially in larger, more complex service compositions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.13 I would like to extend my WSDL definition to include a programmatically consumable statement that
communicates that upon receiving a message the service will add an entry to an event log. Which
technology should I use?
A. Mashup
B. XSLT
C. REST
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.14 XML can be used to structure data passed between REST services, but REST introduces rules that limit
the extent to which XML elements and attributes can be nested.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 When two compatible SOAP-based Web services need to exchange an XML document that is
compliant with the XML schema shared by both services, then:
A. A data model transformation technology, such as XSLT, must be used to enable the data exchange.
B. A new XML schema must be created to overcome the disparity between how each service defines the
data model for the XML document.
C. A WS-Policy definition must be created to establish rules that address any differences in the XML
document exchange.
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.16 XML schemas are comparable to database records. Therefore, XML documents that are based on
XML schemas are comparable to database data models.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements is true?
A. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different data models (that represent the same business document) to communicate with each
other.
B. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services
using different communication protocols to communicate with each other.
C. An enterprise service bus commonly provides service broker-related features that allow two services to
communicate even though they use different communication protocols and different data models (that
represent the same business document).
D. All of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The XML language is expressed through the use of:
A. elements or tags
B. databases or repositories
C. services or components
D. service compositions or orchestrations
Answer: A

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NO.19 A SOAP-based Web service is required to transmit an XML-based invoice document to a REST
service. However, the SOAP-based Web service is designed to represent invoice data using an XML
schema that is different from the XML schema used within the REST service. How can the disparity
between the XML schemas, used by these two services, be overcome so that they can exchange the
invoice document?
A. A layer of data format transformation logic needs to be introduced based on mashup technologies,
such as DTD and WS-Transform.
B. A layer of protocol transformation logic needs to be introduced based on Web technologies, such as
HTTP and FTP.
C. A layer of data model transformation logic needs to be introduced, based on XML technologies, such
as XSLT.
D. There is no technique or technology for overcoming differences between XML schemas.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following are associated with the functionality provided by a typical enterprise service
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A. reliable message delivery
B. intermediate message routing
C. temporary storage of messages in queues
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: S90-08A
시험 이름: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Design & Architecture)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A.The Contract Centralization pattern positions the service contract as the official entry point into the
service logic.
B.The Contract Centralization pattern can impose performance overhead and requires the use of design
standards.
C.The application of the Contract Centralization pattern enables access to underlying service resources
through the use of secondary or unofficial technical contracts.
D.The Decoupled Contract pattern supports the application of the Contract Centralization pattern.
Answer:C

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NO.2 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a
message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.3 Each service composition within a service inventory shares the same service composition architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.4 Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A.You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B.Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C.Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

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NO.5 A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer
programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is true?
A.The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B.The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C.Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus
environments.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.7 When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A.an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B.temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C.periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D.enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service
consumer are guaranteed
Answer:ABC

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NO.8 The scope and size of different service inventory architectures can vary.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.9 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A.The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B.The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C.The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D.The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
Answer:BC

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is false?
A.Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-*
extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B.Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of
message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata
pattern.
C.The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and
receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D.The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing
by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
Answer:C

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NO.11 Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing
requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre-determined message
paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when
compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.12 The application of the Contract Centralization pattern requires that runtime access policies be
implemented.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A.Reliable Messaging
B.Asynchronous Queuing
C.Intermediate Routing
D.Policy Centralization
Answer:ABCD

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NO.14 The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and
service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.15 Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A.Atomic Service Transaction
B.Intermediate Routing
C.Service Broker
D.Decoupled Contract
Answer:B

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NO.16 In the message exchange framework established by the application of the Reliable Messaging pattern,
what roles are typically fulfilled by service agents?
A.service agents can process positive acknowledgements
B.service agents can process negative acknowledgements
C.service agents can load balance messages
D.service agents can route messages based on their content
Answer:AB

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NO.17 The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A.common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B.common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
Answer:A

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NO.18 Assuming the Reliable Messaging pattern is successfully applied, which of the following statements is
correct?
A.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
returns an acknowledgement back to the service consumer. Next, the service agent forwards the
message to the service and when it receives an acknowledgement back from the service, it deletes the
message.
B.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
forwards the message to the service. Next, the service agent receives an acknowledgement from the
service, which it returns to the service consumer. Finally, the service agent deletes the message and
related acknowledgements.
C.The service consumer stores the message and forwards it to a service agent, which issues an
acknowledgement back to the service consumer. The service agent then forwards the message to the
service and when it receives an acknowledgement from the service, the service agent informs the service
consumer so that it can delete the message and the acknowledgement.
D.None of the above.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are false?
A.Using the Reliable Messaging pattern can improve the quality of messaging-based communication.
B.The Reliable Messaging pattern is applied to databases, not services.
C.The Reliable Messaging pattern is one of the patterns that can be associated with the Enterprise
Service Bus compound pattern.
D.The Reliable Messaging pattern is always applied together with the Atomic Service Transaction pattern.
Answer:BD

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NO.20 The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A.the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be
carried in the message header
B.a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C.the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D.a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas
between compatible services
Answer:B

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NO.1 Measured usage is only limited to tracking statistics for billing purposes. It does not encompass the
general monitoring of IT resources and related usage reporting. Therefore, measured usage is only
relevant to clouds that charge for usage. Select the correct answer. ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned
as cloud services.
D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud
services.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Service agents are provided only by runtime environments and operating systems. As a result, service
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A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 .A(n) ____________________ cloud is a cloud environment owned by a third-party cloud provider and
accessible to external cloud consumers. The IT resources in the cloud are generally offered to cloud
consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.
A. public
B. on-premise
C. private
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The Limited Portability Between Cloud Providers challenge of cloud computing can occur when an
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consumers build cloud-based solutions to conform to proprietary requirements imposed by cloud
providers. This makes it more difficult to move to new cloud providers in the future.Select the correct
answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.1 Two SVM servers in SVM Domain A are connected over Fibre Channel with two SVM servers in SVM
Domain B. The SVM servers' HBA at each domain can see the SVM servers' HBA at the other SVM
domain. What should you do to interconnect the SVM domains?
A. An SVM automatically negotiates the connection with the SVMs in other domains over Fibre Channel.
B. SVM domains should not be interconnected.
C. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect SVM
Domain.
D. To interconnect two SVM domains, select Tools > Options > General > Configuration > Connect FC
Domain.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have a customer that feels that their application can take advantage of striping their data. Which
two conditions will improve performance? (Choose two.)
A. Striping across two different storage systems.
B. Servers are running a transactional application where I/Os per second are required.
C. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are not of equal size.
D. Disks that are available for inclusion in the stripe set are of equal size.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 What are two requirements to set up a stretched SVM domain across two datacenters on the same
campus? (Choose two.)
A. Both SVM servers must be located on the same site.
B. The sites must be interconnected through two fabrics/ISLs.
C. Each site must have a minimum of one copy of the setup volume.
D. A dedicated IP link must be provided to interconnect the SVM servers.
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 When adding storage to an existing SVM pool, what must be considered?
A. Growing the LUN will provide better utilization of storage.
B. Always pay attention to the performance characteristics of the storage.
C. Always select storage with different storage characteristics.
D. Adding storage to an existing pool will reduce performance.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement about the SVM server software upgrade is true?
A. The SVM server must be rebooted as part of the software upgrade process.
B. The SVM server must only be rebooted on major versions, e.g 5.1 to 5.2.
C. The SVM server can stay online during the software upgrade.
D. The DPMs must be taken offline during the SVM server reboot.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement describes what should be performed after a DPM image upgrade?
A. The DPM rank must be modified.
B. Set the DPM maximum frame size.
C. The DPM image upgrade does not change the DPM configuration parameters.
D. Configure the DPM ports type and speed.
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the difference between the active SVM server and the passive SVM server?
A. The passive SVM server takes control when the active SVM server is too busy.
B. The passive SVM server is a standby server only and does not perform any management tasks.
C. The passive SVM server can only modify objects but cannot create objects.
D. The passive SVM server can only manage user accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What should you do before starting the SVM server software upgrade process?
A. Reboot the SVM server.
B. Disconnect the SVM Fibre Channel cables.
C. Shut down the SVM Web server.
D. Uninstall the SVM server agent.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which parameter must be the same for SVM servers that manage the same SVM domain?
A. serial number
B. SVM domain name
C. computer name
D. WWNN
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer wants to create a SVM stripe. Which SVM stripe value should be set?
A. 64 KB
B. 256 KB
C. 512 KB
D. 1 MB
Answer: D

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NO.11 During the SVM Management software installation, which two adapters would you select to be
controlled by the SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Emulex Fibre Channel adapter
B. Qlogic Fibre Channel adapter
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator
D. Smart Array controller
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 Your current SAN environment includes a storage system with LUNs exposed directly to Windows hosts.
You have been asked to integrate this storage system into the new SVM domain. Which statement is
correct?
A. The existing data can be moved to an SVM virtual volume while the application is still writing to the
source LUN.
B. The physical LUN containing the data must be unmounted from the host while the data is been moved
to an SVM virtual volume.
C. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the host while the data is been moved to an
SVM virtual volume.
D. The physical LUN containing the data must be mounted to the SVM servers while the data is been
moved to an SVM virtual volume.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where is the SVM metadata stored?
A. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drives.
B. On a mirror, between the managed storage array LUNs and the SVM internal hard drive.
C. On a mirror, between managed storage array LUNs.
D. On a mirror, between the two SVM internal hard drive partitions.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer is running a cluster with cluster nodes and storage on either site and requires synchronous
mirroring across the two sites. You proposed a stretched SVM domain and now you need to configure the
zoning. Which two zoning rules apply to this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Each DPM must see both storage systems.
B. Each DPM must only see the local storage system.
C. Each cluster node must see both SVM servers.
D. The SVM servers must see each other.
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 At the end of the SVM installation, which three actions should you perform to ensure that the installation
is correct.? (Choose three.)
A. Test failover between two SVMs to make sure that you can successfully failover between SVMs.
B. Make sure that the SVM recognizes the DPM and that the DPM recognizes all of the devices that are
connected to the DPM ports.
C. Make sure that the SVM and DPM recognize the LUNs available on the storage array.
D. Make sure that the DPMs can communicate with each other.
E. Make sure that the LSI Failover Driver is installed on the SVM server.
Answer: A,B,C

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시험 번호/코드: GCFA
시험 이름: GIAC (GIAC Certified Forensics Analyst)
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NO.1 You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are
alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step for you to
take in preserving the chain of custody?
A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee's email.
C. Seize the employee's PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee's PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15 servers
of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and software firewalls and
disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the company asks Adam to run
emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet service to function properly. Adam is
concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a very large security risk in an organization.
Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning, and penetration testing on the server to checkon
the server to check the security. Adam telnets into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results:
Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. Melissa
B. Tequila
C. Brain
D. I love you
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following type of file systems is not supported by Linux kernel?
A. vFAT
B. NTFS
C. HFS
D. FAT32
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system,
when the computer is running on Microsoft's Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
Answer: B

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NO.6 You work as a Web developer for ABC Inc. You want to investigate the Cross-Site Scripting attack on
your company's Web site. Which of the following methods of investigation can you use to accomplish the
task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL
to the company's site.
B. Look at the Web server's logs and normal traffic logging.
C. Use Wireshark to capture traffic going to the server and then searching for the requests going to the
input page, which may give log of the malicious traffic and the IP address of the source.
D. Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any
communication with outside servers.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted.?
A. Trademark law
B. Cyber law
C. Copyright law
D. Espionage law
Answer: A

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NO.8 The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk
architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary operating
system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system,
MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, internet traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, internet traces
Answer: D

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NO.10 Mark works as a security manager for SofTech Inc. He is using a technique for monitoring what the
employees are doing with corporate resources. Which of the following techniques is being used by Mark
to gather evidence of an ongoing computer crime if a member of the staff is e-mailing company's secrets
to an opponent?
A. Electronic surveillance
B. Civil investigation
C. Physical surveillance
D. Criminal investigation
Answer: A

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NO.11 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He receives the following e-mail:
The e-mail that John has received is an example of __________.
A. Virus hoaxes
B. Spambots
C. Social engineering attacks
D. Chain letters
Answer: D

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NO.12 You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to
investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using an
online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer will
you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
Answer: A,B,D

GIAC자료   GCFA   GCFA

NO.13 TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the
target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker
and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port
will drop the packet. Which of the following operating systems can be easily identified with the help of TCP
FIN scanning?
A. Solaris
B. Red Hat
C. Knoppix
D. Windows
Answer: D

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NO.14 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the
server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also
claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the
marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the
remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data,
such as running process, ram, and network connections.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Bell Inc. You want to install Windows XP
Professional on your computer, which already has Windows Me installed. You want to configure your
computer to dual boot between Windows Me and Windows XP Professional. You have a single 40GB
hard disk.
Which of the following file systems will you choose to dual-boot between the two operating
systems?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. CDFS
D. FAT
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
Answer: A

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NO.17 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. OpenSSH
B. IPTables
C. IPChains
D. Stunnel
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following encryption methods uses AES technology?
A. Dynamic WEP
B. Static WEP
C. TKIP
D. CCMP
Answer: D

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NO.19 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. The network is configured on IP version 6 protocol. All the computers on the network are
connected to a switch device. One day, users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server.
You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own
loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. The server is configured with unspecified IP address.
E. The server's NIC is not working.
Answer: E

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NO.20 Which of the following Acts enacted in United States allows the FBI to issue National Security Letters
(NSLs) to Internet service providers (ISPs) ordering them to disclose records about their customers?
A. Wiretap Act
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C. Economic Espionage Act of 1996
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
Answer: D

GIAC   GCFA자격증   GCFA자격증

NO.21 Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network
in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
Answer: C

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NO.22 Adam, a malicious hacker has successfully gained unauthorized access to the Linux system of
Umbrella Inc. Web server of the company runs on Apache. He has downloaded sensitive documents and
database files from the computer. After performing these malicious tasks, Adam finally runs the following
command on the Linux command box before disconnecting. for (( i =
0;i<11;i++ )); do
dd if=/dev/random of=/dev/hda && dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/hda done
Which of the following actions does Adam want to perform by the above command?
A. Making a bit stream copy of the entire hard disk for later download.
B. Deleting all log files present on the system.
C. Wiping the contents of the hard disk with zeros.
D. Infecting the hard disk with polymorphic virus strings.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Fill in the blank with the appropriate name.
_____is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following attacks saturates network resources and disrupts services to a specific
computer?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Polymorphic shell code attack
C. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following modules of OS X kernel (XNU) provides the primary system program interface?
A. BSD
B. LIBKERN
C. I/O Toolkit
D. Mach
Answer: A

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NO.26 You want to upgrade a partition in your computer's hard disk drive from FAT to NTFS. Which of the
following DOS commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. FORMAT C: /s
B. CONVERT C: /fs:ntfs
C. SYS C:
D. FDISK /mbr
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following tools can be used to perform tasks such as Windows password cracking,
Windows enumeration, and VoIP session sniffing?
A. John the Ripper
B. L0phtcrack
C. Obiwan
D. Cain
Answer: D

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NO.28 An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a
trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started
shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. Bluesnarfing
C. PDA Hijacking
D. Privilege Escalation
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
Answer: D

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NO.30 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. You install Windows 98 on a computer.
By default, which of the following folders does Windows 98 setup use to keep the registry tools?
A. $SYSTEMROOT$REGISTRY
B. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWS
C. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSREGISTRY
D. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSSYSTEM32
Answer: B

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