ST0-090 시험문제 덤프 Symantec 자격증

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-090
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)

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NO.1 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.2 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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NO.4 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.5 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

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NO.8 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.11 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.12 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

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NO.13 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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NO.14 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

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NO.15 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.18 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

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NO.19 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

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NO.20 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-094
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Storage Management Assessment)

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NO.1 In which order must the tasks be performed to initially synchronize VVR replication using
checkpoints? .
Start replication using vradmin -c checkpoint startrep . Run "vxrvg -c checkpoint
checkstart" . Run "vxrvg checkend" . Perform a block-level backup at the primary . Restore raw backup at
the secondary
A. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
C. 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
D. 2, 4, 5, 3, 1
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the limitations when upgrading CVM and CFS to version 5.1?
A. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the same versions of software; rolling upgrades
with mixed versions of software are only supported from 5.1 onwards.
B. All systems within a CVM/CFS configuration must have the latest MP for the current version prior to the
upgrade to 5.1.
C. Rolling upgrades can only be performed from version 5.0 to 5.1; rolling upgrades from 4.1 are not
supported
D. Rolling upgrades can only be performed if the diskgroup and filesystem versions remain unchanged
until all of the systems have been upgraded to the same version of software
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer has two identical servers that support an OLTP database and billing application, respectively.
Each night they run a batch job to create a full Volume Manager snapshot of their OLTP database, which
is then imported and mounted on the other server to support the billing application. The customer has
asked an administrator to upgrade the version of Storage Foundation on the OLTP server to version 5.1.
Which action should be taken when performing this upgrade?
A. Upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries, diskgroups, and filesystems on the OLTP server and advise
the customer to upgrade their billing system to the same version of Storage Foundation software.
B. Inform the customer that they must upgrade the OLTP and Billing servers at the same time.
C. Modify the Storage Foundation configuration to use space-saving snapshots instead of full snapshots.
D. Only upgrade the Storage Foundation binaries on the OLTP server, do not upgrade the diskgroup and
filesystem versions until after the Billing server has been upgraded.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with the srlprot attribute set to override.
If there is an SRL overflow while the RLINK is connected, what happens to the running application issuing
writes.?
A. Application continues, and VVR overflows the SRL.
B. Application is blocked until SRL drains 5% or 20 megabytes, whichever is smaller.
C. Application is blocked until the RLINK is automatically detached after AutoDetach seconds have
elapsed.
D. Application continues, and VVR is automatically converted to DCM logging.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has Veritas Volume Replication (VVR) version 5.1 with the following Rlink attributes:
synchronous=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps Which statement is true?
A. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, then the
bandwidth_limit attribute will be overridden to try and maintain a synchronous copy of the data at the
secondary site.
B. If VVR is unable to maintain synchronous replication within the defined bandwidth limits, it will
automatically fall-back to asynchronous mode to enable replication within the defined bandwidth limits.
C. VVR will throttle the write operations on the primary server in order to replicate the data
synchronously to the secondary site within the bandwidth limits. In the event of a network failure VVR will
fallback to asynchronous replication mode and the write operations on the primary server will no longer be
throttled, but the bandwidth for replicating to the secondary site will still be limited.
D. The bandwidth_limit attribute does not apply to synchronous replication, however in the event that the
rLink falls back to asynchronous mode the data will then be replicated within the defined bandwidth limits.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why is it important to upgrade Storage Foundation diskgroups and filesystem versions after upgrading
the version of software on a system?
A. Storage Foundation will be unable to access the files residing on diskgroups and filesystems that have
an older version than the binaries.
B. Older diskgroup and filesystem versions are only supported during a rolling upgrade.
C. Upgrading the diskgroup and filesystem versions will enable the full capabilities of the product to be
deployed.
D. It eliminates warnings being sent to the console due to the out-of-date diskgroup and filesystem
versions.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have been asked to review a customer's VVR configuration, and found that the Rlink has the
following attributes: srlprot=override bandwidth_limit=30 mbps What is the risk to the customer's
application if the SRL overflows?
A. Application writes will be stalled which may cause the front-end application to fail or hang.
B. The bandwidth_limit will be increased so the SRL can drain, and this may overload the network and
cause application performance problems.
C. The size of the SRL will be increased, leaving less space if the application volumes need to be
extended.
D. VVR will start to use the DCM, which requires a replay of the DCM, during which, Write Order Fidelity
for the application data is lost.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has a Veritas Volume Replicator (VVR) configuration with srlprot attribute set to autodcm. In
the event that the SRL overflows, what will happen?
A. VVR will delay any further writes to the primary node until the SRL has drained below the
low-watermark threshold
B. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR then
automatically replicates writes tracked by the DCM.
C. VVR tracks new writes in the DCM while it drains the SRL. Once the SRL is empty, VVR stops and the
DCM must be replayed manually.
D. VVR stops replicating and writes in the SRL are converted into DCM logging. The DCM must then be
replayed manually.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two capabilities of Symantec Common Product Installer (CPI) are not supported by the
web-based installer for Storage Foundation 5.1? (Select two.)
A. installing Storage Foundation
B. uninstalling Storage Foundation
C. upgrading Storage Foundation
D. configuring Storage Foundation for Oracle RAC (SFRAC)
E. adding license keys for Storage Foundation
Answer: C, D

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NO.10 Which two components should ordinarily be configured within a Relicated Volume Group (RVG)?
(Select two.)
A. SRL
B. RDS
C. DCM
D. Diskgroup
E. Rlink
Answer: A, C

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시험 번호/코드: 250-511
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11)

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NO.1 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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NO.6 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.8 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-511인증   250-511

NO.10 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.11 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   250-511   250-511

NO.14 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.15 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

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NO.16 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.17 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.20 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-134
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)

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NO.1 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

Symantec pdf   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.3 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.4 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.5 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.7 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134인증   ST0-134   ST0-134시험문제

NO.8 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   ST0-134   ST0-134
13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

Symantec자료   ST0-134덤프   ST0-134   ST0-134덤프

NO.10 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.11 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.14 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-134   ST0-134   ST0-134

NO.18 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-134인증   ST0-134기출문제

NO.19 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-134덤프   ST0-134

NO.20 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

Symantec인증   ST0-134자료   ST0-134   ST0-134시험문제   ST0-134

Symantec인증 ST0-134시험은 등록하였는데 시험준비는 아직이라구요? Symantec인증 ST0-134시험일이 다가오고 있는데 공부를 하지 않아 두려워 하고 계시는 분들은 이 글을 보는 순간 시험패스에 자신을 가지게 될것입니다. 시험준비 시간이 적다고 하여 패스할수 없는건 아닙니다. ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-134덤프와의 근사한 만남이Symantec인증 ST0-134패스에 화이팅을 불러드립니다. 덤프에 있는 문제만 공부하면 되기에 시험일이 며칠뒤라도 시험패스는 문제없습니다. 더는 공부하지 않은 자신을 원망하지 마시고 결단성있게ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-134덤프로 시험패스에 고고싱하세요.

250-403 덤프 Symantec 인증

ITExamDump 에서 출시한Symantec인증250-403 덤프는Symantec인증250-403 실제시험의 출제범위와 출제유형을 대비하여 제작된 최신버전 덤프입니다. 시험문제가 바뀌면 제일 빠른 시일내에 덤프를 업데이트 하도록 최선을 다하고 있으며 1년 무료 업데이트서비스를 제공해드립니다. 1년 무료 업데이트서비스를 제공해드리기에 시험시간을 늦추어도 시험성적에 아무런 페를 끼치지 않습니다. ITExamDump에 믿음을 느낄수 있도록 구매사이트마다 무료샘플 다운가능기능을 설치하였습니다.무료샘플을 체험해보시고ITExamDump을 선택해주세요.

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아무런 노력을 하지 않고 승진이나 연봉인상을 꿈꾸고 있는 분이라면 이 글을 검색해낼수 없었을것입니다. 승진이나 연봉인상을 꿈꾸면 승진과 연봉인상을 시켜주는 회사에 능력을 과시해야 합니다. IT인증시험은 국제적으로 승인해주는 자격증을 취득하는 시험입니다. ITExamDump의Symantec인증 250-403덤프의 도움으로 Symantec인증 250-403시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득하면 승진이나 연봉인상의 꿈이 이루어집니다. 결코 꿈은 이루어질것입니다.

시험 번호/코드: 250-403
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.1)

250-403 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/250-403.html

NO.1 Refer to the Exhibit.
A target has been created with two rules: 1) 'exclude computers not in' filter Windows XP Computers, and
2) 'include computers in' filter All Computers. There are 150 computers in the Windows XP Computers
filter. There are 200 computers in the All Computers filter. How many computers will be in the target?
A. 50
B. 150
C. 200
D. 350
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403   250-403   250-403

NO.2 Which statement is true about the Default Shared Schedules shipping with Notification Server?
A. They cannot be deleted.
B. They cannot be modified.
C. They can override maintenance windows.
D. They cannot be disabled.
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   250-403   250-403   250-403자격증   250-403자격증   250-403자료

NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
How can an administrator modify the filter so that it shows all Windows XP workstations ?
A. by adding 'Windows XP Computers' to the Resources included in this filter
B. by adding 'Windows XP Computers' to the Filters included in this filter
C. by adding 'Non Windows XP Computers' to the Filters excluded in this filter
D. by adding 'Non Windows XP Computers' to the Resources excluded in this filter
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   250-403   250-403 dump   250-403

NO.4 If installation of the Package Service on the Site Server is forgotten, what is the impact on a new
hierarchy implementation?
A. Replication performance is degraded.
B. Data replication stops.
C. Hierarchy installation is denied.
D. Hierarchy replication switches to HTTP.
Answer: C

Symantec인증   250-403   250-403인증

NO.5 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   250-403자료   250-403   250-403   250-403시험문제

NO.6 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

Symantec   250-403 dump   250-403   250-403시험문제   250-403자료   250-403인증

NO.7 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations. Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. Because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizationalview.
B. Because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. Because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. Because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

Symantec시험문제   250-403   250-403

NO.8 A Symantec Management Platform 7.1 administrator attempts to discover all network resources using
the ping function, and none are found. After conferring with the network administrator, it is determined that
ping is blocked on all network devices for security purposes. Which other protocol can the administrator
use to discover network devices using Network Discovery?
A. CDP
B. HIP
C. ARP
D. RIP
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403 dump   250-403덤프   250-403 pdf   250-403기출문제

NO.9 Which Symantec Management Platform component initiates policy-based communication?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Agent
C. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. Symantec Management Console
Answer: B

Symantec   250-403 dumps   250-403   250-403

NO.10 What defines the link between user and computer resources?
A. Resource Association
B. Resource Data Class
C. Resource Type
D. Resource Link
Answer: A

Symantec   250-403   250-403최신덤프   250-403 dump   250-403

NO.11 What can the administrator use to have resources assigned to specific sites without administrative
intervention and as they register with the Notification Server?
A. Automation policy
B. Active Directory import policy
C. Inventory policy
D. Custom Inventory policy
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   250-403최신덤프   250-403

NO.12 Which two methods can an administrator use to create tasks? (Select two.)
A. clone an existing task
B. clone a task report
C. right-click a reports folder and select New -> Task
D. right-click a Jobs and Tasks Portal folder and select New -> Task
E. clone an existing patch
Answer: A,D

Symantec자료   250-403 dump   250-403   250-403 dumps   250-403자료   250-403 pdf

NO.13 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and stores
it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403 dump   250-403덤프   250-403 dump   250-403

NO.14 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned a policy and set a schedule for the policy to run at 9:00 A.M. every day. When
the policy does not run as expected on a client computer, the administrator reviews the policy's XML and
finds that there is an end date set for a date in the past. What should the administrator do to correct this
policy?
A. export the policy, edit and correct the XML, and import the policy
B. create an automation policy that updates the end date in all solution policies
C. edit the end date field for the affected row in the vPolicy database view
D. clear the end date option in the policy's advanced options
Answer: D

Symantec   250-403   250-403   250-403   250-403자료   250-403

NO.15 Refer to the Exhibit.
The All Computers filter contains the following computers: WinXP1, WinXP2, and Win2003. The Windows
2003 filter contains the Win2003 computer. What is contained within the resultant target?
A. nothing
B. Win2003 only
C. WinXP1 and WinXP2 only
D. WinXP1, WinXP2, and Win2003
Answer: C

Symantec기출문제   250-403시험문제   250-403자료

NO.16 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator is attempting to set up a replication rule. When the administrator right-clicks the
replication folder, the menu in the exhibit appears. What does the administrator need to do to create a
replication rule?
A. enable Replication
B. access one of the Replication subfolders
C. access the resource and select Replicate Now
D. create a subfolder and access it there
Answer: B

Symantec   250-403 dumps   250-403   250-403자료   250-403인증

NO.17 Refer to the Exhibit.
After a password change on the Application Identity account, the administrator of a Symantec
Management Platform 7.1 (SMP) server sees this error. Which action resolves the problem?
A. run sc.exe config "AeXSvc" password= (password)
B. run a repair of SMP through the Symantec Installation Manager
C. change the password by changing the database setting options in the SMP console
D. run AeXConfig.exe /svcid user:(user name) password:(password)
Answer: D

Symantec기출문제   250-403   250-403   250-403   250-403

NO.18 Refer to the Exhibit.
There is one Notification Server at HQ that manages all desktops and laptops throughout the WAN. What
should be configured to reduce processor load on the Notification Server and move network intensive
services closer to their points of distribution?
A. Organizational Units
B. Replication Management
C. Site Management
D. Security Sites
Answer: C

Symantec dump   250-403   250-403시험문제   250-403 dump   250-403시험문제   250-403 pdf

NO.19 What must an administrator do to edit a sample task.?
A. clone the sample task and edit the original task
B. right-click and select the task's properties
C. clone the source folder of the sample
D. clone the sample task and edit the clone
Answer: D

Symantec   250-403   250-403자격증   250-403   250-403

NO.20 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has set up the Resource Association History within Purging maintenance. No other
Purging maintenance settings are enabled. If a computer resource were retired three months ago, what
will the status of this resource be in this scenario?
A. The resource will be removed after two months.
B. The resource will no longer be retired.
C. The resource will still be retired.
D. The resource will have an unknown status.
Answer: C

Symantec   250-403 pdf   250-403 dump   250-403자료

ITExamDump의Symantec인증 250-403시험덤프공부가이드 마련은 현명한 선택입니다. Symantec인증 250-403덤프구매로 시험패스가 쉬워지고 자격증 취득율이 제고되어 공을 많이 들이지 않고서도 성공을 달콤한 열매를 맛볼수 있습니다.

ST0-135 시험문제 덤프 Symantec 자격증

인터넷에는Symantec인증 ST0-135시험대비공부자료가 헤아릴수 없을 정도로 많습니다.이렇게 많은Symantec인증 ST0-135공부자료중 대부분 분들께서 저희ITExamDump를 선택하는 이유는 덤프 업데이트가 다른 사이트보다 빠르다는 것이 제일 큰 이유가 아닐가 싶습니다. ITExamDump의 Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프를 구매하시면 덤프가 업데이트되면 무료로 업데이트된 버전을 제공받을수 있습니다.

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-135
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )

수많은Symantec인증 ST0-135시험공부자료중에서ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프가 가장 출중한 원인은 무엇일가요? ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프는 실제시험문제의 출제방향을 연구하여 IT전문가로 되어있는 덤프제작팀이 만든 최신버전 덤프입니다. ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프가 있으면 힘든Symantec인증 ST0-135시험이 쉬어져서 자격증을 제일 빠른 시간내에 취득할수 있습니다.제일 어려운 시험을 제일 간단한 방법으로 패스하는 방법은ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프로 시험준비 공부를 하는것입니다.

Symantec인증 ST0-135시험은 IT업종종사분들에게 널리 알려진 유명한 자격증을 취득할수 있는 시험과목입니다. Symantec인증 ST0-135시험은 영어로 출제되는만큼 시험난이도가 많이 높습니다.하지만 ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프만 있다면 아무리 어려운 시험도 쉬워집니다. 오르지 못할 산도 정복할수 있는게ITExamDump제품의 우점입니다. ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-135덤프로 시험을 패스하여 자격증을 취득하면 정상에 오를수 있습니다.

ST0-135 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-135.html

NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

Symantec dump   ST0-135최신덤프   ST0-135 dumps   ST0-135

NO.2 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135자료   ST0-135   ST0-135   ST0-135 dumps

NO.3 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

Symantec덤프   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.4 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135시험문제   ST0-135   ST0-135시험문제

NO.5 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.7 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135 dumps   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.8 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.9 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.12 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.13 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.14 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.17 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.19 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.20 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.21 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.22 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.23 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.24 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.27 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135자격증   ST0-135

NO.30 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-149
시험 이름: Symantec (Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 Windows Technical Assessment )

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NO.1 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.2 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-149   ST0-149

NO.4 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-149   ST0-149덤프

NO.8 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.11 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

Symantec덤프   ST0-149   ST0-149   ST0-149자료

NO.13 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.16 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.17 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-149 pdf   ST0-149

NO.18 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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