도비 Pegasystems PEGACSSA_v6.2 시험

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시험 번호/코드: PEGACSSA_v6.2
시험 이름: Pegasystems (Certified Senior System Architect (CSSA) Exam (PEGACSSA_v6.2))
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NO.1 In which situation can the Data Transform rule not be used? (Choose One)
A. To set some properties as the work item advances over a flow connector
B. To copy data from a connector
C. To set initial property values on a SOAP service primary page
D. Interacting with PRPC database
Answer: D

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NO.2 Given the following rules and assuming the expression is set to forward chaining (whenever
inputs change), which action will cause the expression to fire? (Choose One)
A. Changes to the values .Country or .State
B. Referencing .TaxRate
C. Referencing .Country or .State
D. Changes to the values .Country or .State as well as references to .TaxRate
Answer: A

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NO.3 Expressions that are backward chaining (set to "Whenever Used") execute when___________.
(Choose One)
A. the target property is referenced ONLY in data transforms or activities
B. the target property is referenced in any way
C. dependent properties are changed
D. data is committed to the database
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following best describes the purpose of Application Express? (Choose One)
A. To build a simple application that will be used for prototyping
B. To build an application profile that will be fed into the Application Accelerator
C. To build an enterprise-scale application that encourages reuse, including the Enterprise Class
Structure
D. To build an application "from scratch", when an Application Profile is not necessary or available
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature would you use to copy the highest version of every rule in a RuleSet to a new
version? (Choose One)
A. Copy/Merge RuleSet
B. Lock and Roll
C. Skim a RuleSet
D. Refactor on import
Answer: C

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NO.6 What statements most accurately explains private check-outs? (Choose Two)
A. When checking in a private checked-out rule manual merging might be required
B. Use the check-out setting in the operator preferences to specify the preferred check-out method
(standard/private)
C. Private check-out is available if the rule is checked-out by someone else
D. Locking a RuleSet prevents private check-outs
E. Private check-out is only available for a user who has previously checked in the rule
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which of the following are most accurate regarding utility functions? (Choose Two)
A. Utility functions can use both the standard Java API and the PRPC Public API
B. Utility functions are called by utility shapes in flows
C. A new utility function should only be created if no other rules or provided functions can
accomplish a given requirement
D. Utility functions cannot access clipboard data
E. It is recommended, but not required, that utility functions belong to a library
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Your application has leveraged the parent-child mid-process dependency relationship for some
of the case types. Which of the following situations should you be concerned with and have your
design appropriately avoid? (Choose One)
A. A double instantiation of the child cases
B. A broken process
C. A deadlock condition
D. A critical performance issue
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true regarding declarative expressions and their scope?
(Choose Two)
A. Declarative expressions can be defined relative to the top level page OR an embedded page
B. All declarative expressions must be defined relative to the work object
C. Defining expressions directly on data classes can improve reusability of the expression
D. The Applies To class of a declarative expression must derive from Work-
E. Defining expressions directly on data classes means they will only run if the data class is a top
level page
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 A business requirement is to attach a scanned document to work items. However, only a
select group of workers should be allowed to do so. Which attachment feature would you most
likely leverage to implement your solution? (Choose One)
A. Configure an attachment category
B. Enable attachment level security
C. Define a specific access group
D. Provide a role-based attachment security
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is a RuleSet versioning practice that is prevented by PRPC? (Choose
One)
A. Skipping RuleSet versions
B. Having two unlocked versions of the same RuleSet
C. Locking a RuleSet that has rules currently checked out
D. Unlocking a RuleSet that was once locked
Answer: C

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NO.12 The evaluate all rows feature of a decision table can be used to ________? (Choose One)
A. return multiple values to a declarative expression that calls it
B. return the value of the last row where all conditions are met
C. create a mechanism to calculate the sum of all matching rows
D. set the value of a specific property for all pages in a page list
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following decision table:
Considering clipboard values:
.Country = 'US' .State='CA' .MonthsEmployed = 9
What result value will be returned? (Choose One)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding declarative rules? (Choose One)
A. Declarative rules run in a separate thread
B. Declarative rules can only be used for numeric computation
C. Declarative rules should only be used in pure business rules engine applications
D. Declarative rules improve developer productivity and reduce risk by making PRPC responsible for
executing the rules
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following factors is most critical when deciding between Decision Trees, Decision
Tables and Map Values? (Choose One)
A. Which rule form the business users who will maintain the rule feel most comfortable with
B. Always consider Decision Trees before tables as they execute faster
C. Only consider MapValues when there is one input parameter
D. Which rule type provides the most optimal runtime performance
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: M70-201
시험 이름: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam )
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NO.1 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B

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NO.3 A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?
A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _is Allowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you
do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module's block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be
presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module's config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the
purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. Data model
B. Data helper
C. Resource model
D. Resource collection
E. Setup class
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.7 What is the purpose of Catalog Target rules?
A. To extend Catalog Price Rules to be used for related products.
B. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of additional products on the product page.
C. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of custom product options.
D. To provide a mechanism for easier selection options for configurable products.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Answer: A

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NO.9 Applying the shopping cart rule's action affects the quote item by setting the quote item's
_______________.
A. base_price and price properties with the discounted price
B. base_discount_amount and discount_amount with the discount applied to the original price
C. base_row_total and cow_total properties with the discounted price
D. base_price_incl_tax and price_incl_tax properties with the discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be
overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento
payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register ('payment_method_debug_' . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Answer: D

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NO.12 When $ this ->load Layout (' foo_bar_baz') is called in a standard front action, what is the effect on the
layout update object instance?
A. foo_bar_baz will be the only handle added
B. loadLayout () does not take any arguments, so there is no effect
C. Only two handles will be added: foo_bar_baz and default
D. Foo_bar_baz will be added instead of the default handle
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native
Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
Answer: A

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NO.14 When changes are made to more than one of a collection's items using setData( 'some', 'value'), which
of the following methods will save the changes in the collection?
A. $collection->saveAll();
B. $collection->saveItems ();
C. $collection->saveAllItems ()?
D. $collection->save();
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following block methods is the best to override when there is a need to customize how the
block's html is rendered?
A. _toHtml()
B. toHtmlO
C. setLayout ()
D. renderLayout ()
Answer: A

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NO.16 When setData (' some', 'value') is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The 'value' of the attribute named 'some' is saved in the eav_values table
B. The 'value' of the attribute named ' some' is saved in one of the entity's tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ' some' 'value' available to the entity
D. The 'value' of the attribute named T some' is saved in the eav attribute values table
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which one of the following xpaths is correct for replacing Mage_Customer_Model_Custom_Address via
Mage::helper ('customer/address')?
A. Global/customer/helpers/address
B. Global/rewrite/helpers/rewrite/address
C. Global/helpers/customer/rewrite/address
D. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer_address
E. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer/address
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which statement correctly describes order state and order status?
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn't have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit
memo.
Answer: B

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NO.20 With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)
A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products
Answer: C,E,F

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ISQI 자격증 CTFL-001 시험문제와 답

ITExamDump의 ISQI인증 CTFL-001덤프를 선택하여ISQI인증 CTFL-001시험공부를 하는건 제일 현명한 선택입니다. 시험에서 떨어지면 덤프비용 전액을 환불처리해드리고ISQI인증 CTFL-001시험이 바뀌면 덤프도 업데이트하여 고객님께 최신버전을 발송해드립니다. ISQI인증 CTFL-001덤프뿐만아니라 IT인증시험에 관한 모든 덤프를 제공해드립니다.

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시험 번호/코드: CTFL-001
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
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ISQI CTFL-001인증시험도 어려울 뿐만 아니라 신청 또한 어렵습니다.ISQI CTFL-001시험은 IT업계에서도 권위가 있고 직위가 있으신 분들이 응시할 수 있는 시험이라고 알고 있습니다. 우리 ITExamDump에서는ISQI CTFL-001관련 학습가이드를 제동합니다. ITExamDump 는 우리만의IT전문가들이 만들어낸ISQI CTFL-001관련 최신, 최고의 자료와 학습가이드를 준비하고 있습니다. 여러분의 편리하게ISQI CTFL-001응시하는데 많은 도움이 될 것입니다.

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NO.1 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

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NO.4 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

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NO.5 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI시험문제   CTFL-001자격증   CTFL-001

NO.7 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.9 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

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ISQI 자격증 CTAL-TTA-001 시험문제와 답

네트웨크시대인 지금 인터넷에 검색하면 수많은ISQI인증 CTAL-TTA-001시험공부자료가 검색되는데 그중에서도ITExamDump에서 출시한 ISQI인증 CTAL-TTA-001덤프가 가장 높은 인지도를 지니고 있습니다. ISQI인증 CTAL-TTA-001덤프에는ISQI인증 CTAL-TTA-001시험문제의 기출문제와 예상문제가 수록되어있어 덤프에 있는 문제만 잘 공부하시면 시험은 가볍게 패스가능합니다. ISQI인증 CTAL-TTA-001시험을 통과하여 자겨증취득하는 꿈에 더욱 가까이 다가가세요.

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시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TTA-001
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))
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NO.1 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.3 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TTA-001시험문제   CTAL-TTA-001

NO.5 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: CTAL-TTA_001
시험 이름: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))
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NO.1 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% condition
determination coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.2 The application of multiple condition testing is also being considered.
Which specification-based technique is largely based on the principle of multiple condition testing?
1 credit [K2]
A. Equivalence Partitioning
B. State Transition Testing
C. Decision Table Testing
D. Use Cases
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which TWO additional structure-based test design techniques could be used to dynamically
test the code? 1 credit [K2]
A. Condition testing
B. Multiple condition testing
C. Equivalence partitioning
D. Cause/effect graphing
E. Code reviews
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 The Bonus Program is perceived by management to be critical. Defects in the program would
almost immediately lead to financial loss. In the past an improvement program has been run to
implement review based on IEEE 1028. Knowledge and skills on both formal and informal reviews
are available. There is also an existing pool of review leaders. Which of the following review types
would you choose to review the program? 2 credits [K4]
A. Informal review
B. Inspection
C. Walkthrough
D. Management review
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which additional set of test cases is needed to achieve both 100% statement coverage and
100% decision coverage? 3 credits [K3]
A)
B)
C)
D)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.6 How many test cases are needed to test code fragment lines 26 - 32 to achieve 100% multiple
condition coverage? 2 credits [K3]
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the value of statement coverage achieved by test case 1 from test set A? 2 credits [K3]
A. ? 75% (21 / 28)
B. ? 78% (22 / 28)
C. ? 85% (24 / 28)
D. ? 90% (25 / 28)
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have tested the program and have found that with "bonus" a boundary value has not
been implemented according to design. You have written an incident report. Which of the following
is the incident report of the highest quality? 2 credits [K3]
A. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester:
WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
B. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: Medium Tester: WVU
Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program")
C. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus (line 26: 10 according to design,
now 5 implemented) Priority: High Repeatability: Yes Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification
"bonus program"), V1.2
D. Description: Boundary value not correctly implemented for bonus Priority: High Repeatability: Yes
Tester: WVU Test case: 35 (test specification "bonus program"), V1.2
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?
A. Standards
B. Technology
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?
1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer
2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet
A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. Neither of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?
A. Reduced total cost of ownership
B. Improved quality of service
C. Improved Service alignment with business goals
D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM)
activities
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services
have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management
D. Availability management
Answer: C

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NO.6 In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements
against
targets?
A. Operational level agreement(OLA)
B. Capacity plan
C. Service level agreement(SLA)
D. SLA monitoring chart(SLAM)
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable
the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.8 What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service
provider to deliver customer facing services?
A. Business services
B. Component services
C. Supporting services
D. Customer services
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D

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NO.10 The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?
A. Before the change is approved
B. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed out
C. After implementation but before the post implementation review
D. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Continued Business Justification?
A. The justification for the project must remain the same throughout the project
B. The justification for the project should remain valid
C. The justification for the project may change
D. If the project is no longer justified it should be stopped
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement best explains the purpose of Tailor to suit the project environment?
A. Ensure project controls are based on project's scale, complexity, importance, capability and risk
B. To use a set of pre-defined templates for the size of project
C. To tailor the use of the principles to suit the project
D. To pick which PRINCE2 processes to apply and which to leave out
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following principles describes this statement?" xxx defines tolerances for each
project objective to establish limits of delegated authority"
A. Manage by stages
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by exception
D. Learn from experience
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describes an outcome?
A. Any of the projects specialist products
B. A result of the change derived from using the project's products
C. A measurable improvement resulting from a change
D. Something perceived as advantages by a stakeholder
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following principles uses Product Descriptions to provide clarity by defining each
product's purpose, composition, derivation, format, quality criteria and quality method?
A. Tailor to suit the project environment
B. Focus on products
C. Manage by stages
D. Continued business justification
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
The Learn from Experience principle suggests that lessons should be actively sought...
A. When Starting a Project
B. When Initiating a Project
C. As the project progresses
D. As the project closes
Answer: B

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NO.7 The Manage by Exception principle sets tolerances for six areas of the project, Time. Cost and
Quality are three of them, what are the other three?
A. Scope, People & Resources, Benefit
B. Scope, Risk, Product
C. Risk, Benefit, Product
D. Scope, Risk, Benefit
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following should NOT be included in the business case?
A. Reasons
B. Major Risks
C. Business options
D. Business approach
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: MSC-131
시험 이름: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy AirDefense Solutions)
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Q&A: 103 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-27

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NO.1 Which of the following best defines a "security risk"?
A. The likelihood of being targeted by a given attack, of an attack being successful, and general exposure
to a given threat.
B. The source and means of a particular type of attack.
C. The security flaws in a system that allow an attack to be successful.
D. Reduced Instruction Set Kernel.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your company processes and stores credit card information in a corporate database. You must be able
to determine the status of the company's compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standard with
regard to wireless device use. How can this be accomplished using ADSP?
A. By running a PCI compliance report at each of the retail store levels of your ADSP tree.
B. By running a PCI compliance report at the accounting department level of your ADSP tree,
C. By running a PCI compliance report at the system level of your ADSP tree.
D. By running a PCI compliance report at network operations center level of your ADSP tree.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following appropriately characterizes a rogue access point (AP)?
A. An AP that is causing Co-Channel interference with your APs.
B. An AP that is not the same brand as your customers APs.
C. An AP that is on your wired network without proper authorization.
D. An AP that is not using the security required by corporate policy.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You have configured your ADSP appliance to use a RADIUS server to validate user credentials upon
GUI logon. However, users continue to be validated directly by ADSP. What additional step must be taken
to ensure GUI users are authenticated via the RADIUS server you configured when they are logging into
ADSP?
A. The ADSP appliance must be rebooted to ensure the settings are recorded properly
B. Each user account must be configured to use the correct RADIUS server for authentication
C. You must log into the CLI using the SMXMGR account and run the Enforce Credentials command
D. Log into the GUI with your admin account and click on the Synchronize RADIUS Accounts button in
Appliance Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 You used the Report Builder to create a custom template to support your PCI compliance initiative.
Two weeks later you decide to use the report but you're not quite sure where to locate it. How would you
access this template?
A. By selecting it in the Custom Reports found in the reporting feature
B. By using the search feature in the Web reporting interface
C. By selecting it under the Inactive category on the Reports page
D. By using the Templates drop down box in the Report Builder application
Answer: A

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NO.6 There was a rogue AP on your network as detected by ADSP. The rogue was displayed in your Alarms.
When you run a wireless security posture details report for the same time range, the rogue does not
appear in the report. What is the most likely cause for the rogue not being in the report?
A. The report was run for a different scope than the one that detected the rogue.
B. Your account was not created in the scope level where the rogue was detected.
C. You are logged into ADSP as a guest account which lacks the permission to run the report.
D. The rogue device has been removed from the network and the corresponding alarm is now inactive.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How can the Wireless Intrusion Protection System (WIPS) feature of the Motorola Solutions
AirDefense Services Platform (ADSP) be used to protect your Wi-Fi network?
A. The WIPS system can remove rogue access points from neighboring networks
B. The WIPS system can utilize RF Jamming to keep your channels clear.
C. The WIPS system can identify wired leakage and other network vulnerabilities
D. The WIPS system can stop neighboring devices from using your channels
Answer: C

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NO.8 Spectrum Analysis can be performed using different modes of operation. Which of following modes
would be the most appropriate to use if you need to perform a Spectrum Analysis and capture information
about the data link layer (Layer 2 of OSI model)?
A. Dual Layer Scan Mode
B. Continuous Scan Mode
C. Background Scan Mode
D. Interference Scan Mode
Answer: C

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NO.9 When would the configuration of ADSP include the use of a RADIUS server?
A. When LDAP is not available
B. When sensor validation is required
C. When sensors require a VPN connection
D. When centralized authentication is required
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the purpose of the Bonding command in the ADSP CLI.?
A. The Bonding command is used to link sensors to the correct container in the ADSP tree.
B. The Bonding command is used to enable the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances to synchronize.
C. The Bonding command is used to enable both of the NIC's on ADSP's system board to act as one for
high availability.
D. The Bonding command is used to ensure that both the Primary and Secondary ADSP appliances are
configured to use the same IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What security exists for the communication between sensors and the ADSP appliance?
A. EAP-TTLS and SSL
B. PEAP and SSL
C. PKI and SSL
D. EAP-TLS and SSL
Answer: C

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NO.12 Broadcasting the SSID and allowing the access point to respond to clients with no SSID makes it easier
for the clients, but some consider it a security loophole. The theory for disallowing these two practices is
that it helps ° h i d ¡± t h e n e t w ork
What is the problem with this theory?
A. Hiding the SSID turns off the beacons thus disabling passive scanning
B. Not responding to null SSIDs causes the EAP process to break down
C. These values must be present in order for intrusion detection systems to function
D. The SSID will still be present in probe request frames and can be seen with a protocol analyzer
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are the administrator of a very large ADSP installation protecting an international WLAN
deployment. Running a compliance report each day for your boss takes a great deal of your time in the
mornings. What can you do using ADSP to reduce the amount of your time it takes to render this
information and deliver it to your boss?
A. Create a Guest account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for other
tasks.
B. Create an Admin account for your boss. Teach them to run their own each day, leaving you free for
other tasks.
C. Add the desired report to the Data Collection Polling interval with a daily schedule to be emailed to your
boss.
D. Add the report to your favorites list. Then schedule it to run at an off peak time and to automatically be
emailed to your boss each day.
Answer: D

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NO.14 A new coffee shop opens in your building offering hot-spot internet access. Several of your users are
connecting to the hot-spot while at their desks to bypass your firewall rules. What is the best thing that can
be done using the ADSP system to prevent this?
A. Integrate with the firewall using SNMP and import the same firewall rules.
B. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of authorized AP's.
C. Create a termination policy to prevent authorized stations from using ad-hoc networks.
D. Create a termination policy to prevent accidental associations of your work stations to unauthorized
networks.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A requirement for seamless roaming in a Robust Security network is that the access points receive the
Pairwise Master Key (PMK) identifier from the station in the reassociation frame. What other information
must be included in that frame?
A. Any 802.1g VLAN tags.
B. The IP address and subnet mask.
C. The randomly generated shared secret.
D. The MAC address of the old access point.
Answer: D

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibits.
An ArcGIS user is attempting to create a relationship class between the two tables shown in the
exhibit using POSTAL_CODE and Zip_Code as the origin primary key and destination foreign keys,
respectively. However when the user tries to set the keys Zip_Code does not appear in the
drop-down list of candidate keys
What should the user do to successfully create the relationship class?
A. change the relationship type from non attributed to attributed
B. make sure both tables are in the same geodatabase
C. create data type compatible key fields
D. move both tables to the same feature dataset
Answer: B

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NO.2 A water utility company had received calls from several customers complaining of low water
pressure.
Using a geometric network representing the water network, how can an ArcGIS user determine the
most likely location of the problem?
A. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Common Ancestors trace
task
B. place junction flags on each customer water meter and use the Find Disconnected trace task
C. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Trace Upstream trace task
D. place a junction barrier on each customer water meter and use the Find Path upstream trace task
Answer: A

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Reference: http://ssl.tamu.edu/courses/frsc652 /lab/gdbase_lab_exercises.pdf (page 3, step 9)

NO.3 Using the Spatial Analyst IDW (Inverse Distance Weighted) tool an ArcGIS user interpolates a
point feature class to a raster. The user notices that some high point values near the edge of the
feature class seem to have a dramatic effect on the output. This occurs even in areas that are far
from the high edge values
Which two parameters should the user consider changing in the IDW tool? (Choose two)
A. z-value field
B. search radius
C. power
D. output cell size
E. weight
Answer: D,E

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NO.4 In the value for the latitude of origin in a projection tile is modified, making the value less
negative (e.g.from -45 to -28). which way does the data move?'
A.north
B.south
C.east
D.west
Answer: B

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NO.5 A taster contains pixels with decimal values.
Which method is used to round raster pixel values to the nearest whole number?
A. use the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst)
B. use the Round Down tool (Spatial Analyst), then the Round Up tool (Spatial Analyst)
C. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 1, then the Minus tool (Spatial Analyst) to subtract 0.5
D. use the Plus tool (Spatial Analyst) to add 0.5, then the int tool (Spatial Analyst) to truncate to the
nearest integer
Answer: B

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NO.6 An image that is displayed as draped over a digital elevation model (DEM) in ArcGlobe appears
to be overly pixilated.
Which property should be changed to make the image appear smoother?
A. stretch type
B. resampling method
C. contrast setting
D. unit conversion
Answer: C

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NO.7 An ArcGlS user plans to distribute a series of map documents where the amount of time the
map file can be viewed is limited.
Which format should the user create to specify a timeout period for these maps?
A. .mpk
B. .ipk
C. .pmf
D. .msd
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://webhelp.esri.com/arcgisdesktop/ 9.3 /index.cfm?TopicName=Publishing_optimized_map_ser
vices

NO.8 A user wants to connect new laterals to supply water to newly built houses. What edge type
supports this function?
A. an edge between two junctions
B. a complex edge
C. a subtype of edge
D. a simple edge
Answer: D

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Reference:
http://edndoc.esri.com/arcobjects/ 8.3 /TechnicalDocuments/Network/ArcGISNetworkModel/ArcGIS
Network.htm (topic 2.1.2, see the first image)

NO.9 An ArcGIS user runs the Central Feature geoprocessing tool on a polygon feature class. The
output feature is far north of the center of the feature class
Why is the output feature off center of the feature class?
A. There are more polygons in the northern part of the feature class
B. The polygons in the northern part of the feature class are larger
C. The feature class is not in the same promotion as the data frame
D. A weight field is not specified
Answer: D

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user receives two shapefiles that are defined with the same projection and
represent features in the same study area. When they are displayed together in ArcMap, the
difference of their locations in coordinate space is so large that they are barely visible when viewed
at their full extent.
How can the user determine whether the projections of the shapefiles are correctly defined?
A. by comparing the shapefiles to a correctly projected dataset that has a large enough extent to
encompass the study area
B. by systematically changing the spatial reference of the data frame until the shapefiles correctly
align
C. by using the Spatial Adjustment toolbar to move the shapefiles to the same part of coordinate
space
D. by examining the metadata of both shapefiles to determine the projection processes applied to
the data1
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: S90-08A
시험 이름: SOA Certified Professional (Advanced SOA Design & Architecture)
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is false?
A.The Contract Centralization pattern positions the service contract as the official entry point into the
service logic.
B.The Contract Centralization pattern can impose performance overhead and requires the use of design
standards.
C.The application of the Contract Centralization pattern enables access to underlying service resources
through the use of secondary or unofficial technical contracts.
D.The Decoupled Contract pattern supports the application of the Contract Centralization pattern.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which statement regarding intermediate routing is true?
A.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling message routing
requirements that are dynamic in nature and difficult to anticipate in advance.
B.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern is suitable for handling pre-determined message
paths with fixed routing requirements that cannot be changed at runtime.
C.The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern tends to improve runtime performance when
compared to an approach whereby routing logic is embedded within individual services.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.3 The queue established by applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern enables service consumer and
service to revert to a stateless condition before a data exchange has fully completed.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.4 Load balancing is commonly associated with which pattern?
A.Atomic Service Transaction
B.Intermediate Routing
C.Service Broker
D.Decoupled Contract
Answer:B

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NO.5 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can address which of the following needs?
A.The need to increase the autonomy of a service due to its reliance on a shared data source.
B.The need to perform content-based routing based upon metadata found in the message header.
C.The need for load-balanced access to a redundantly deployed service.
D.The need to provide pre-defined compensating logic for when an atomic service transaction fails.
Answer:BC

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NO.6 The Reliable Messaging pattern requires:
A.the use of standardized service contracts in order to enable message atomic transaction details to be
carried in the message header
B.a framework for temporarily persisting messages and issuing acknowledgements
C.the application of the Official Endpoint pattern in order to enable acknowledgement features
D.a framework capable of bridging disparate messaging protocols in order to exchange schemas
between compatible services
Answer:B

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NO.7 When applying the Asynchronous Queuing pattern you aim to establish an environment in which:
A.an intermediate buffer exists between a service and its service consumer
B.temporary message storage is provided in case either the service or service consumer are unavailable
C.periodic re-transmission of a message is supported until it is successfully delivered
D.enforcement of consistent, uninterrupted, synchronous communication between service and service
consumer are guaranteed
Answer:ABC

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NO.8 A service agent has a technical contract that allows it to be explicitly invoked by service consumer
programs.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.9 In the message exchange framework established by the application of the Reliable Messaging pattern,
what roles are typically fulfilled by service agents?
A.service agents can process positive acknowledgements
B.service agents can process negative acknowledgements
C.service agents can load balance messages
D.service agents can route messages based on their content
Answer:AB

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NO.10 The application of the Contract Centralization pattern requires that runtime access policies be
implemented.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.11 The application of the Intermediate Routing pattern can result in multiple service agents intercepting a
message before it arrives at its destination.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.12 The scope and size of different service inventory architectures can vary.
A. True
B. False
Answer:A

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NO.13 Governance can become an issue with service agents because:
A.You will need to determine who will own and maintain the service agents.
B.Changes to a single service agent can impact multiple services throughout a service inventory.
C.Service agents need to be versioned, just like services.
D.All of the above.
Answer:D

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NO.14 Assuming the Reliable Messaging pattern is successfully applied, which of the following statements is
correct?
A.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
returns an acknowledgement back to the service consumer. Next, the service agent forwards the
message to the service and when it receives an acknowledgement back from the service, it deletes the
message.
B.A service agent intercepts and stores a message from the service consumer. The service agent then
forwards the message to the service. Next, the service agent receives an acknowledgement from the
service, which it returns to the service consumer. Finally, the service agent deletes the message and
related acknowledgements.
C.The service consumer stores the message and forwards it to a service agent, which issues an
acknowledgement back to the service consumer. The service agent then forwards the message to the
service and when it receives an acknowledgement from the service, the service agent informs the service
consumer so that it can delete the message and the acknowledgement.
D.None of the above.
Answer:A

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NO.15 Each service composition within a service inventory shares the same service composition architecture.
A. True
B. False
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements is true?
A.The overuse of service agents can lead to dependencies on proprietary vendor platforms.
B.The use of service agents is limited to the service architecture.
C.Service agents are common in orchestration environments but not within enterprise service bus
environments.
D.None of these statements are true.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements is false?
A.Widespread use of the Messaging Metadata pattern can be seen in the emergence of many WS-*
extensions that define industry standard SOAP header blocks that carry metadata.
B.Messaging frameworks and technologies need to provide support for the reading and writing of
message headers or properties in order to fully support the application of the Messaging Metadata
pattern.
C.The Messaging Metadata pattern is not applicable to situations where the message sender and
receiver need to participate in stateful or conversational message exchanges.
D.The Messaging Metadata pattern can support the application of patterns such as Intermediate Routing
by supplementing messages with activity-specific metadata.
Answer:C

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NO.18 Which of the following statements are false?
A.Using the Reliable Messaging pattern can improve the quality of messaging-based communication.
B.The Reliable Messaging pattern is applied to databases, not services.
C.The Reliable Messaging pattern is one of the patterns that can be associated with the Enterprise
Service Bus compound pattern.
D.The Reliable Messaging pattern is always applied together with the Atomic Service Transaction pattern.
Answer:BD

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NO.19 The use of the Intermediate Routing pattern typically results in:
A.common routing logic being removed from service logic and placed into service agents
B.common routing logic being removed from service agents and placed into a database
C.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service
D.common routing logic being physically centralized into a single service composition
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which of the following patterns may also require the application of the Service Agent pattern?
A.Reliable Messaging
B.Asynchronous Queuing
C.Intermediate Routing
D.Policy Centralization
Answer:ABCD

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